Author Topic: ~ Recruitment of Clerks in State Bank of India ~  (Read 14581 times)

Offline MysteRy

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~ Recruitment of Clerks in State Bank of India ~
« on: January 10, 2012, 11:17:35 AM »





Recruitment of Clerks in State Bank of India (SBI)
for Year of 2012
 




SBI Invite online Applications from Eligible candidates to fill the 3100 clerk jobs across India.

The last date to submit application through online is 20 th, January, 2012. And Online Registration starts from 28 th, December, 2011.


 

There are 2500 Regular vacancies for SC/ST/OBC Candidates and 600 Posts for North East circle.

Education Qualifications Required:
Candidate must have minimum of Intermediate(10+2) or any Degree from any Recognized University

Application Fee:
The Application fee is Rs. 350 for general and OBC Candidates
Rs. 50 for SC/ST Candidates.

How to Apply:
Candidates have to Download Challan form from SBI official website.After paying the application fee,have to Apply through online by submitting all challan form and Personal Details.

Important Dates:
Online Registration Starts from: 28-12-2011
Last date to Apply online: 20-01-2012
Written Exam date:18-03-2012
Payment of fee: 30-12-2011 to 25-01-2012
Download of Call letter from: 05-03-2012

TO DOWNLOAD DETAILED ADVERTISEMENT -

TO APPLY ONLINE(Please read the detailed advertisement before applying) - http://ibpsreg.sifyitest.com/sbiclerkdec11/


Exam Pattern:

The questions of the SBI Clerk Written Test are all objective type.
The exam consists of the following papers:
1. Quantitative Aptitude.
2. General Awareness.
3. Reasoning Ability.
4. General English.
5. Marketing Aptitude / Computer Knowledge.

There is also a provision for negative marking. For each wrong answer attempted one-fourth mark is deducted. This is applicable for all the objective questions in all the papers mentioned above. So the candidates must be cautious before attempting a question. The questions which one is not sure about should not be attempted.

The candidates sitting for the exam have to pass in each of the papers separately and also have to score at least 40% marks in aggregate, i.e., all the tests considered together. The percentage required by SC/ST/PWD/XS candidates is 35% in aggregate.SBI sends the Acquaint Yourself booklet with the call letter for the written test. All the detailed information and guidelines for the exam are given in this booklet.
The study material for the exam is available in market or can be obtained online.


State Bank of India (SBI) History

The evolution of State Bank of India can be traced back to the first decade of the 19th century. It began with the establishment of the Bank of Calcutta in Calcutta, on 2 June 1806. The bank was redesigned as the Bank of Bengal, three years later, on 2 January 1809. It was the first ever joint-stock bank of the British India, established under the sponsorship of the Government of Bengal. Subsequently, the Bank of Bombay (established on 15 April 1840) and the Bank of Madras (established on 1 July 1843) followed the Bank of Bengal. These three banks dominated the modern banking scenario in India, until when they were amalgamated to form the Imperial Bank of India, on 27 January 1921.

An important turning point in the history of State Bank of India is the launch of the first Five Year Plan of independent India, in 1951. The Plan aimed at serving the Indian economy in general and the rural sector of the country, in particular. Until the Plan, the commercial banks of the country, including the Imperial Bank of India, confined their services to the urban sector. Moreover, they were not equipped to respond to the growing needs of the economic revival taking shape in the rural areas of the country. Therefore, in order to serve the economy as a whole and rural sector in particular, the All India Rural Credit Survey Committee recommended the formation of a state-partnered and state-sponsored bank.

The All India Rural Credit Survey Committee proposed the take over of the Imperial Bank of India, and integrating with it, the former state-owned or state-associate banks. Subsequently, an Act was passed in the Parliament of India in May 1955. As a result, the State Bank of India (SBI) was established on 1 July 1955. This resulted in making the State Bank of India more powerful, because as much as a quarter of the resources of the Indian banking system were controlled directly by the State. Later on, the State Bank of India (Subsidiary Banks) Act was passed in 1959. The Act enabled the State Bank of India to make the eight former State-associated banks as its subsidiaries.

The State Bank of India emerged as a pacesetter, with its operations carried out by the 480 offices comprising branches, sub offices and three Local Head Offices, inherited from the Imperial Bank. Instead of serving as mere repositories of the community's savings and lending to creditworthy parties, the State Bank of India catered to the needs of the customers, by banking purposefully. The bank served the heterogeneous financial needs of the planned economic development.

Branches
The corporate center of SBI is located in Mumbai. In order to cater to different functions, there are several other establishments in and outside Mumbai, apart from the corporate center. The bank boasts of having as many as 14 local head offices and 57 Zonal Offices, located at major cities throughout India. It is recorded that SBI has about 10000 branches, well networked to cater to its customers throughout India.

ATM Services
SBI provides easy access to money to its customers through more than 8500 ATMs in India. The Bank also facilitates the free transaction of money at the ATMs of State Bank Group, which includes the ATMs of State Bank of India as well as the Associate Banks – State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur, State Bank of Hyderabad, State Bank of Indore, etc. You may also transact money through SBI Commercial and International Bank Ltd by using the State Bank ATM-cum-Debit (Cash Plus) card.

Subsidiaries
The State Bank Group includes a network of eight banking subsidiaries and several non-banking subsidiaries. Through the establishments, it offers various services including merchant banking services, fund management, factoring services, primary dealership in government securities, credit cards and insurance.

The eight banking subsidiaries are:
State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur (SBBJ)
State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH)
State Bank of India (SBI)
State Bank of Indore (SBIR)
State Bank of Mysore (SBM)
State Bank of Patiala (SBP)
State Bank of Saurashtra (SBS)
State Bank of Travancore (SBT)

Products And Services

Personal Banking:
SBI Term Deposits SBI Loan For Pensioners
SBI Recurring Deposits Loan Against Mortgage Of Property
SBI Housing Loan Loan Against Shares & Debentures
SBI Car Loan Rent Plus Scheme
SBI Educational Loan Medi-Plus Scheme

Other Services:
Agriculture/Rural Banking
NRI Services
ATM Services
Demat Services
Corporate Banking
Internet Banking
Mobile Banking
International Banking
Safe Deposit Locker
RBIEFT
E-Pay
E-Rail
SBI Vishwa Yatra Foreign Travel Card
Broking Services
Gift Cheques

Contact
State Bank Of India
Corporate Centre
Madam Cama Road
Mumbai 400 021, India

Website:http://www.statebankofindia.com/

« Last Edit: February 15, 2012, 10:08:49 PM by MysteRy »

Offline MysteRy

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~ SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 1 ~
« Reply #1 on: January 10, 2012, 12:30:11 PM »




SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 1



SBI Clerk Recruitment Exam 2012 (General Awareness)
1. Which of the following States will soon have its first Civil Airports?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Sikkim
Ans : (E)

2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) V. V. S. Laxman
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1 ?
(a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface.
(b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface.
(c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure timely
supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market ?
(A) Bill Markets
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Banks
(D) Mutual Funds
(E) Indian Gold Council
Ans : (E)

6. Which of the following is the objective of the project ‘Bhoomi Keralam’ launched by the State Govt. ?
(A) To conduct a survey of the land
(B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States
(C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress
(D) To identify those tribals who need jobs or financial assistance
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently ?
(A) Russia
(B) Equadore
(C) South Korea
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following awards was given to Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently (2008) ?
(A) Padma Bhushan
(B) Sangit Natak Academy Award
(C) Maharashtra Bhushan
(D) Karnataka Ratna
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (E)

9. Which of the following States got its first Rail link recently ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur
(E) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (E)

10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
(A) Republican
(B) Democratic
(C) Labour
(D) American National Congress
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India’s Foreign Trade policy (2004 to 2009)?
(a) To double India’s percentage share of global trade from present 0∙7 per cent to 1∙5 per cent by 2009.
(b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost.
(c) Make SAARC countries India’s most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) Only (a) & (c)
Ans : (C)

12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ……….
(A) President of Canada
(B) Prime Minister of Canada
(C) President of Italy
(D) Prime Minister of Switzerland
(E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A.
Ans : (B)

13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product ?
(A) Urea
(B) Murate of Potash
(C) Di Amonium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Carbonate
(E) All are fertilizers
Ans : (E)

14. A Rs. 35,000 crore JSW Steel Plant project was inaugurated in West Bengal recently. The project is
setup / developed in ……….
(A) Singur
(B) Nandigram
(C) Salboni
(D) Malda
(E) Joynagar
Ans : (C)

15. Which of the following State Govts. Has announced that it will provide a special package of
incentives to Employment Intensive Industries?
(A) Punjab
(B) Karnatak
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Bihar
Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following nations has decided to increase its co‐operation in the field of energy with
India?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Nepal
(E) Japan
Ans : (A)

17. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the post offices in India ?
(A) Savings Bank Scheme
(B) Retailing of Mutual Funds
(C) Sale of stamp Papers (Judicial)
(D) Issuance of Demand Drafts
(E) Life Insurance cover
Ans : (D)

18. Mohammed Anni Nasheed is the newly elected President of ……….
(A) Fiji
(B) Maldives
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Who amongst the following is the winner of the Nobel Prize for Literature 2008 ?
(A) Jean Marie Gustave Le Clezio
(B) Martti Ahtisaari
(C) Yoichiro Nambu
(D) Francoise Barre Sinoussi
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. A national level commission of India has asked about twenty States to set up which of the following
commissions in their States as early as possible ?
(A) Farmers Commission
(B) Women Commission
(C) Child Welfare Commission
(D) Law Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ease the
liquidity crunch in the country ?
(a) Cut in Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
(b) Increase the flow of foreign direct investment.
(c) Supply of additional currency notes in the market.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. The third India Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Summit took place in which of the following dies
recently ?
(A) Brazilia
(B) New Delhi
(C) Suncity
(D) Salvador
(E) Durban
Ans : (B)

23. Which of the following States has dcided to set up Arsenic Removal Plants in all the districts of the
State to enable itself to provide arsenic free drinking water to all the people by 2010‐11 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
(E) Maharashtra
Ans : (C)

24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Exile’ ?
(A) B. G. Verghese
(B) Philip Roth
(C) Aravind Adiga
(D) Navtej Saran
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country ?
(A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(B) Navodaya Vidhyalay
(C) Ultra Mega Power Project
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuthikara Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

26. The Govt. of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following
products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Namesake’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Arun Bhagat
(D) Anita Desai
(E) Jhumpa Lahiri
Ans : (E)

28. Besides USA India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named
as ‘Co‐operation Agreement for Peaceful uses of Nuclear Energy’ ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Ans : (C)

29. Tzipi Livini whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) South Korea
(C) Austria
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

30. World Ozone day is observed on ……….
(A) 16th September
(B) 16th October
(C) 16th November
(D) 26th September
(E) 26th October
Ans : (A)

31. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. Sponsored organization ?
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(B) NABARD
(C) National Housing Bank
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) All are Govt. sponsored
Ans : (D)

32. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of ……….
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Golf
(E) Tennis
Ans : (B)

33. India’s Space Rocket Launching Centre is in ……….
(A) Portblair
(B) Hassan
(C) Tirupati
(D) Kochi
(E) Sri Harikota
Ans : (E)

34. The National Games scheduled in 2011 will be organized in ……….
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Goa
(C) Kolkata
(D) Kochi
(E) Jaipur
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the followiing diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance project ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) AIDS
(D) Polio
(E) Cancer
Ans : (E)

36. Which of the following is TRUE about ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’ ?
(a) Scheme is for Below Poverty Line families.
(b) People are provided cooked meals under the scheme.
(c) All beneficiaries of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are covered in this scheme.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

37. Jelena Jankovic of Serbia won which of the following titles of tennis after defeating Svetlana
Kuznetsova ?
(A) China Open
(B) Japan Open
(C) New Zealand Open
(D) Australian Open
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. Who amongst the following is the Minister of Home Affairs in Union Cabinet of India at present ?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

39. Banks are required to pay how much percentage of their net bank credit to Priority Sector is advance
?
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

40. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in ……….
(A) Literacy Work
(B) Social Service
(C) Coaching in Sports
(D) Journalism
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
« Last Edit: February 15, 2012, 10:09:28 PM by MysteRy »

Offline MysteRy

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~ Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 2 ~
« Reply #2 on: January 10, 2012, 12:44:18 PM »




SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 2



State Bank of India Clerk Recruitment Exam 2008 Solved Paper
1. Oscar Awards are given for the excellence in the field of ‐ 
(A) films 
(B) Literature 
(C) Sports 
(D) Politics 
(E) Status 
ANS (A)

2. Which of the following is not a food crop ? 
(A) Wheat 
(B) Barley 
(C) Maize 
(D) Gram 
(E) Cotton 
ANS (E)

3. Union Budget always presented first in ‐ 
(A) The Loksabha 
(B) The Rajyasabha 
(C) Joint session of Parliament 
(D) Meeting of the Union cabinet 
(E) The State Assemblies 
ANS (A)

4. The Government of India has earmarked about Rs. 70,000 crore in Union Budget to help which of the
following sections of the society ? 
(A) Children who are bonded labour 
(B) Persons working in hazardous industries
(C) Farmers 
(D) People living below poverty line 
(E) None of these 
ANS (E)

5. Jose Louise has taken over as the prime minister of ‐ 
(A) France 
(B) Argentina 
(C) Spain 
(D) New zealand 
(E) Italy 
ANS (C)

6. The conference of Economic/ Finance Ministers of ASEAN was held recently in ‐ 
(A) Jakarta 
(B) Bali 
(C) New Delhi 
(D) Tokyo 
(E) Islamabad 
ANS (B)

7. Which of the following International forums/ organizations has made a decision of not to go for
reckless lending ? 
(A) G‐7 
(B) G‐8 
(C) SAARC
(D) World Bank 
(E) IMF 
ANS (E)

8.Mahmood Ahmadinejad who was in India on an official visit recently is the ‐ 
(A) Prime Minister of Iraq 
(B) President of Iran 
(C) Prime Minister of Iran 
(D) President of Iraq 
(E) None of these 
ANS (B)

9. India recently started "Maitree Express" to which of the following destinations ? 
(A) Islamabad 
(B) Karanchi 
(C) Dhaka 
(D) Kathmandu 
(E) None of these 
ANS (C)

10. The first ever General elction took place in which of the following countries in Indian sub‐continent ? 
(A) Bhutan 
(B) China 
(C) Pakistan 
(D) Bangladesh 
(E) Sri Lanka 
ANS (A)

11. As per the latest figures published in the newspapers the growth of economy in India for the fiscal
year ended March 2008 has been at which of the following levels ? About ‐ 
(A) 6 % 
(B) 6.5 % 
(C) 7 % 
(D) 7.5 % 
(E) 9 % 
ANS (E)

12. Name of B.S.Yeddyurappa was recently in news as he has taken over as the ‐ 
(A) Governor of Karnataka 
(B) Chief Minister of Karnataka 
(C) Governor of Andhra Pradesh 
(D) Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh 
(E) None of these 
ANS (B)

13. The Govt. of India Planning to put up a bill in the parliament to ensure free and compulsory
education for all those who are of the age of ‐ 
(A) 3 Years 
(B) 5 Years 
(C) 6‐14 Years 
(D) 12‐20 Years 
(E) Upto 21 Years 
ANS (C)

14. "World No Tobacco Day" is observed on which of the following days ? 
(A) Ist May 
(B) 10th May 
(C) 21st May 
(D) 31 st May 
(E) 1st June 
ANS (D)

15. Late Vijay Tendulkar who died recently was a famous ‐ 
(A) Social Work 
(B) Politician 
(C) Sportsman 
(D) Play Wright 
(E) None of these 
ANS (D)

16. Mnay times we erad in newspapers about the GM Crops.What is the full form of GM ? 
(A) Genetically Marketed 
(B) Genetically Modified 
(C) Green & Moisturious 
(D) Globally Marketed 
(E) None of these 
ANS (B)

17. Barack Obama whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ? 
(A) UK 
(B) USA 
(C) France 
(D) Italy 
(E) None of these 
ANS (B)

18. Which of the following is an Oscar winning documentary on climate change in which former US Vice
President Al Gore has featured as a narrator ? 
(A) An inconvenient truth 
(B) The Sea 
(C) Road to prediction 
(D) Remember My Name 
(E) None of these 
ANS (A)

19. Defence minister from 27 nations recently gathered at which of the following places to discuss
security amongst the countries of Asia Pacific Region ? 
(A) Beijing 
(B) New Delhi 
(C) Singapore 
(D) Kuala Lumpur 
(E) None of these 
ANS (C)

20. Who amongst the following is NOT a Lawn Tennis Player ? 
(A) Serena Williams 
(B) Katarina Srebotnik 
(C) Andy Murray 
(D) Nichlas Almagro 
(E) Ricky Ponting 
ANS (E)

21. The head office of the Stae Bank Of India is located in ‐ 
(A) Kolkat 
(B) New Delhi
(C) Pune 
(D) Ahmedabad 
(E) None of these 
ANS (E) Mumbai

22. Which of the following is NOT the name of the sensitive index of any global stock exchange ? 
(A) Nasdaq 
(B) Nikkei 
(C) Kospi 
(D) Dow 
(E) Combix 
ANS (E)

23. Mnay times we read the term 'ECB'in financial newspapers.What is the full form of 'ECB'? 
(A) Essential Commercial Borrowing 
(B) Essential Credit & Borrowing 
(C) External Credit & Business 
(D) External Commercial Borrowing 
(E) None Of These 
ANS (D)

24. Who amongst the following is the new face in Union Cabinet after it was reshuffled recently ? 
(A) Mnai Shankar Aiyer 
(B) Rahul Gandhi 
(C) Priyanka 
(D) Jyotiraditya Scindia 
(E) None of these 
ANS (D)

25. Who amongst the following has taken over as the chief minister of Nagaland ? 
(A) Manik Sarkar 
(B) Dinesh Nandan Sahay 
(C) P.Longon 
(D) K.Shankaranarayanan 
(E) None of these 
ANS (E)
« Last Edit: February 15, 2012, 10:10:12 PM by MysteRy »

Offline MysteRy

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~ SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 3 ~
« Reply #3 on: January 10, 2012, 01:57:48 PM »




SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 3



2009 All Entrance Exams Entrance Exams Other Entrance Exams State Bank of India (SBI) Clerk
Recruitment Exam ‐ Marketing Aptitude/Computer Knowledge Exam Question paper

1. A keyboard is this kind of device—
(A) black
(B) input
(C) output
(D) word Processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. IT stands for—
(A) information Technology
(B) integrated Technology
(C) intelligent Technology
(D) interesting Technology
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following refers to the fastest, biggest and most expensive computers ?
(A) Personal Computers
(B) Supercomputers
(C) Laptops
(D) Notebooks
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. A collection of related information sorted and dealt with as a unit is a—
(A) disk
(B) data
(C) file
(D) floppy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

5. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as—
(A) pulling
(B) pushing
(C) downloading
(D) transferring
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. Which part of the computer helps to store information ?
(A) Disk drive
(B) Keyboard
(C) Monitor
(D) Printer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. ………………is the process of carrying out commands.
(A) Fetching
(B) Storing
(C) Executing
(D) Decoding
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. The role of a………generally is to determine a buyer’s needs and match it to the correct hardware and
software.
(A) computer Scientist
(B) computer sales representative
(C) computer consultant
(D) corporate trainer
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. Which of the following groups consist of only output devices ?
(A) Scanner, Printer, Monitor
(B) Keyboard, Printer, Monitor
(C) Mouse, Printer, Monitor
(D) Plotter, Printer, Monitor
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. The rectangular area of the screen that displays a program, data, and/or information is a—
(A) title bar
(B) button
(C) dialog box
(D) window
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

11. A(n)………contains commands that can be selected.
(A) pointer
(B) menu
(C) icon
(D) button
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. An error is also known as—
(A) bug
(B) debug
(C) cursor
(D) icon
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

13. Arithmetic Operations—
(A) involve matching one data item to another to determine if the first item is greater than, equal to, or
less than the other item
(B) sort data items according to standard, predefined criteria in ascending order or descending order
(C) use conditions with operators such as AND, OR and NOT
(D) include addition, subtraction, multiplication and division
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

14. Sending an e‐mail is similar to—
(A) picturing an event
(B) narrating a story
(C) writing a letter
(D) creating a drawing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

15. Promotion in Marketing means—
(A) passing an examination
(B) elevation from one grade to another
(C) selling the products through various means
(D) selling the product in specific areas
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

16. Microsoft Word is an example of—
(A) an operating system
(B) a processing device
(C) application software
(D) an input device
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

17. Sources of Sales Leads are—
(A) Data Mining
(B) Market Research
(C) Media Outlets
(D) Promotional Programs
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

18. Any data or instruction entered into the memory of a computer is considered as—
(A) storage
(B) output
(C) input
(D) information
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. Which part of the computer displays the work done ?
(A) RAM
(B) printer
(C) monitor
(D) ROM
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

20. One of the methods for Market Monitoring is—
(A) to watch TV serials
(B) to discuss with other sales persons
(C) to monitor media outlets
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

21. Market Expansion means—
(A) hiring more staff
(B) firing more staff
(C) buying more products
(D) buying more companies
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

22. A series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do it is called a—
(A) program
(B) command
(C) user response
(D) processor
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. Effective marketing helps in—
(A) developing new products
(B) creating a competitive environment
(C) building demand for products
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

24. Which is the part of a computer that one can touch and feel ?
(A) Hardware
(B) Software
(C) Programs
(D) Output
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. A Call in Marketing means—
(A) to phone the customers
(B) to visit the customers
(C) to visit the marketing site
(D) to call on prospective customers
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. Delivery Channel means—
(A) maternity wards
(B) handing over the products to the buyers
(C) places where products are made available to the buyers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

27. Processing involves—
(A) inputting data into a computer system
(B) transforming input into output
(C) displaying output in a useful manner
(D) providing relevant answers
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

28. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of Internet Banking.
(A) All the customers
(B) All the educated customers
(C) All the computer educated customers
(D) Only creditors
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)

29. Innovation mean—
(A) Product Designing
(B) New ideas
(C) Impulse
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

30. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of educational loan.
(A) All the customers
(B) Students
(C) Only poor students
(D) Students having promising educational track record
(E) All of these
Ans : (B)

31. Service after sale is not the function of—
(A) Marketing staff
(B) Seller
(C) Director of the company
(D) Employees of the company
(E) All of the above are wrong
Ans : (A)

32. If done through………the rural marketing would be more effective.
(A) fairs
(B) village fairs
(C) door to door campaign
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

33. Market Survey means—
(A) Market Research
(B) Market Planning
(C) Marketing Strategies
(D) Market Monitering
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)

34. ………can be done through digital Banking ?
(A) Mobile phone
(B) Internet
(C) Telephone
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

35. A good seller should have the following quality/qualities ?
(A) Devotion to the work
(B) Submissive
(C) Sympathy
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

36. The rural marketing is not required because—
(A) rural people do not understand marketing
(B) its not practical from the cost point of view
(C) it is sheer wastage of time
(D) All are wrong
(E) All are correct
Ans : (D)

37. Planned‐cost service means—
(A) Costly products
(B) Extra profit on the same cost
(C) Extra work by seller
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

38. Internet marketing means—
(A) Self‐marketing
(B) Core Groups monitering
(C) Employees marketing
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

39. The aim of successful marketing is—
(A) to increase the sale
(B) to increase the profit
(C) to increase the output of sellers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

40. The networking becomes……through networking.
(A) very difficult
(B) dull
(C) easy
(D) has no role in marketing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
« Last Edit: February 15, 2012, 10:11:07 PM by MysteRy »

Offline MysteRy

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~ SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 4 ~
« Reply #4 on: January 10, 2012, 02:23:03 PM »




SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 4




2009 All Entrance Exams Entrance Exams Other Entrance Exams State Bank of India ‐ Clerk Recruitment Exam ‐ General English Question paper


Directions—(Q. 1–12) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Keshava, the washerman had a donkey. They worked together all day, and Keshava would pour out his heart to the doneky. One day, Keshava was walking home with the donkey when he felt tired. He tied the donkey to a tree and sat down to rest for a while, near a school. A window was open, and through it, a teacher could be heard scolding the students. ‘Here I am, trying to turn you donkeys into human beings, but you just won’t study !’ As soon as Keshava heard these words, his ears pricked up. A man who could actually turn donkeys into humans ! This was the answer to his prayers. Impatiently, he waited for school to be over that day. when everyone had gone home, and only the teacher remained behind to check some papers, Keshava entered the classroom.

‘How can I help you ?’ asked the teacher. Keshava scratched his head and said, ‘I heard what you said to the children. This donkey is my companion. If you made it human, we could have such good times together.’ The teacher decided to trick Keshava. He pretended to think for a while and then said, ‘Give me six months and it will cost you a thousand rupees.’ The washerman agreed and rushed home to get the money. He then left the donkey in the teacher’s care.

After the six months were up, Keshava went to the teacher. The teacher had been using the donkey for his own work. Not wanting to give it up, he said, ‘Oh, your donkey became so clever that it ran away. He is the headman of the next village.’ When Keshava reached the next village he found the village elders sitting under a tree, discussing serious problems. How surprised they were when Keshava marched up to the headman, grabbed his arm and said, ‘How dare you ? You think you are so clever that you ran away ? Come home at once !’

The headman understood someone had played a trick on Keshava. ‘I am not your donkey !’ he said. ‘Go find the sage in the forest.’ Keshava found the sage sitting under a tree with his eyes closed, deep in meditation. He crept up and grabbed the sage’s beard. ‘Come back home now !’ he shouted. The startled sage somehow calmed Keshava. When he heard what had happened, he had a good laugh. Then he told the washerman kindly, ‘The teacher made a fool of you. Your donkey must be still with him. Go and take it back from him. Try to make some real friends, who will talk with you and share your troubles.A donkey will never be able to do that !’ Keshava returned home later that day with his donkey, sadder and wiser.

1. Which of the following can be said about the teacher
(A) He had the ability to transform animals into human beings
(B) He took advantage of Keshava’s simple nature
(C) He had plotted with the village headman to cheat Keshava
(D) He enjoyed teaching children though he was poorly paid
(E) He was honest and used Keshava’s money to care for the donkey
Ans : (B)

2. Why did Keshava talk to his donkey while working ?
(A) He wanted to practise his communication skills because he wanted to make friends
(B) To entertain himself because he found his work monotonous
(C) The donkey helped him to find answers to his problems
(D) He regarded the doneky as his friend and confided in him
(E) He believed the donkey to be a human being in disguise
Ans : (E)

3. How did Keshava get his donkey back ?
(A) He threatened to take the teacher to the village elders
(B) The sage forced the teacher to release the donkey
(C) He asked the village headman for help
(D) The teacher returned it on learning that Keshava had learnt his lesson
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

4. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?
(a) The donkey was over burdened by the teacher
(b) The teacher was cunning by nature.
(c) The sage laughed at Keshava and treated him unkindly.
(A) Both (a) & (c)
(B) Both (b) & (c)
(C) Only (b)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. Why was Keshava keen to meet the teacher one day ?
(A) Keshava wanted to ask the teacher how to make his donkey a better companion
(B) He wanted to learn more prayers as he was devout
(C) He had been reliably informed that the teacher had changed donkeys into human beings
(D) He heeded the teacher’s words of advice and wanted to study
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

6. Why did Keshava interrupt the discussion among the village elders ?
(A) He did not agree with their views on different issues
(B) To confront the headman who had cheated him out of one thousand rupees
(C) He wanted them to get justice for him
(D) He was looking for the donkey and wanted to ask for directions
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

7. What made Keshava pull the sage’s beard ?
(A) He wanted to wake up the sage who was a sleep under the tree
(B) The headman requested him to move the sage from under the tree
(C) He wanted the sage to explain what had happened to the donkey
(D) He misunderstood the village headman and took the sage to be his donkey
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. Why did the teacher ask Keshava to leave the donkey with him for six months ?
(a) He realised that the donkey would require a lot of training.
(b) To reduce Keshava’s dependence on the donkey.
(c) He wanted to rescue the donkey from Keshava who did not know to treat the donkey properly.
(A) None
(B) Only (b)
(C) Both (a) & (b)
(D) Only (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 9–10) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. trick
(A) joke
(B) skill
(C) mislead
(D) technique
(E) lunny
Ans : (C)

10. remained
(A) pending
(B) waited
(C) lasted
(D) survived
(E) continued
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–12) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. real
(A) false
(B) imitated
(C) dishonest
(D) imagine
(E) genuine
Ans : (A)

12. deep
(A) low
(B) distracted
(C) flat
(D) awake
(E) sleep
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 13–17) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No Correction is Required’, mark (E) as the answer.

13. The company has set up a foundation which helps students who do not have the necessary funds to
study ahead.
(A) further to study
(B) of studying more
(C) to study onward
(D) for higher studies
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (D)

14. If this land is used to cultivate crops it will be additionally source of income for the villagers.
(A) a source of additional
(B) an additionally source
(C) an additional source
(D) additionally the source
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

15. Belonged to this cadre, you are eligible for facilities such as free air travel and accommodation.
(A) since you belong to
(B) whoever belongs
(C) for belonging to
(D) to belong in
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (A)

16. The bank has hired a consultant who will look into any issues which arise during the merger.
(A) is looking over
(B) will be looked after
(C) will look out
(D) looks down on
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)

17. I had severe doubts about if I successfully run a company, but my father encouraged me.
(A) if I am successful in
(B) how should I successfully
(C) whether I could successfully
(D) that I would succeed to
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 18–22) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given.These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

18. RBI has attempted (A) to spend (B) financial (C) awareness (D) through this programme. All Correct(E)
Ans : (B)

19. In order to succeed (A) it is crucial (B) for an organisation to constantly (C) improve. (D) All Correct(E)
Ans : (E)

20. With some assistance (A) from her son she was enable (B) to settle (C) her debts (D) on time. All
Correct (E)
Ans : (B)

21. Though the government initiated (A) a large sum (B) of money in the scheme (C) it was a failure. (D)
All Correct (E)
Ans : (A)

22. We have prepared a detailed (A) report giving various (B) solutions (C) to resort (D) the problem. All
Correct (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 23–27) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.(a) I was pleased by their reaction.(b) Writing my speech was easy, but I was unsure if I could motivate the employees to donate to those affected by the earthquake.(c) Instead of throwing out their unusable articles, they had transferred them to my office in the name of donations.(d) When a reputed company invited me to deliver a lecture on Corporate Social Responsibility, I agreed.(e) It was an affluent company and the well dressed employees who met me afterwards promised to send lots of donations to my office.(f) What I saw however when I opened the bags of ‘donations’ they had sent shocked me.

23. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (A)

24. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (E)

25. Which of the following should be t h e FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (A)

26. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 28–32) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E).(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

28. He has travelled (A) / all over the world (B) / yet he speaks (C) / several languages fluently. (D) No
error (E)
Ans : (C)

29. A successful company is (A) / any that makes a good (B) / profit and provides (C) / high returns to its
shareholders. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

30. The agreement on (A) / which all of us have (B) / worked so hard will (C) / be sign tomorrow. (D) No
error (E)
Ans : (D)

31. It is necessarily to maintain (A) / a record of all transactions (B) / in case the auditors (C) / want to
see it. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

32. Very few young trainees (A) / willingly undertake (B) / a posting to a branch (C) / located in a rural
area. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 33–40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.Today, twenty‐two years after the bank …(33)…, it has over a thousand branches all over the country and the staff …(34)… about twentythree lakh borrowers. We decided to operate …(35)… from conventional banks who would ask their clients to come to their office. Many people in rural areas found this …(36)…. Our bank is therefore based on the …(37)… that people should not come to the bank but that the bank should go to the people. Our loans are also …(38)… we give them for activities from candle making to tyre repair. We also keep …(39)… checks on the borrower through weekly visits. We do this to make certain that the family of the borrower is …(40)… from the loan.

33. (A) origin
(B) commence
(C) existed
(D) began
(E) inaugurated
Ans : (E)

34. (A) assemble
(B) cope
(C) interact
(D) deal
(E) handle
Ans : (E)

35. (A) differently
(B) similar
(C) reverse
(D) opposite
(E) identically
Ans : (A)

36. (A) worried
(B) upset
(C) panicking
(D) anxious
(E) threatening
Ans : (D)

37. (A) principle
(B) discipline
(C) opportunity
(D) chance
(E) advantage
Ans : (A)

38. (A) worth
(B) vary
(C) disburse
(D) contrast
(E) diver
Ans : (B)

39. (A) consistently
(B) regular
(C) often
(D) frequently
(E) daily
Ans : (B)

40. (A) benefiting
(B) serving
(C) welfare
(D) obliged
(E) progress
Ans : (A)
« Last Edit: February 15, 2012, 10:11:57 PM by MysteRy »

Offline MysteRy

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~ SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 5 ~
« Reply #5 on: January 10, 2012, 02:39:32 PM »




SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 5



SBI Clerk Recruitment Exam 2009 (Reasoning)
1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)

3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)

4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)

7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.

11. Statements : All stars are suns.Some suns are planets.All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.


12. Statements : All fishes are birds.All birds are rats.All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)

13. Statements : All curtains are rods.Some rods are sheets.Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)

14. Statements : Some walls are windows.Some windows are doors.All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)

15. Statements : All switches are plugs.Some plugs are bulbs.All bulbs are sockets.Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 – 541 – 654 – 953 – 983

16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)

17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)

20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S

(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct,your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :
Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3

Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.

26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together.Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.

31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z‐Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


« Last Edit: February 15, 2012, 10:12:45 PM by MysteRy »

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~ SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 6 ~
« Reply #6 on: January 10, 2012, 03:06:07 PM »




SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 6



SBI Clerk Previous Paper (General English)
Directions—(Q. 41–55) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

A large majority of the poor in India are outside the formal banking system. The policy of financial inclusion sets out to remedy this by making available a basic banking ‘no frills’ account either with nil or very minimum balances as well as charges that would make such accounts accessible to vast sections of the population. However, the mere opening of a bank account in the name of every household or adult person may not be enough, unless these accounts and financial services offered to them are used by the account holders. At present, commercial banks do not find it viable to provide services to the poor especially in the rural areas because of huge transaction costs, low volumes of savings in the accounts, lack of information on the account holder, etc. For the poor, interacting with the banks with their paper work, economic costs of going to the bank and the need for flexibility in their accounts, make them turn to other informal channels or other institutions. Thus, there are constraints on both the supply and the demand side.

Till now, banks were looking at these accounts from a purely credit perspective. Instead, they should look at this from the point of view of meeting the huge need of the poor for savings. Poor households want to save and contrary to the common perception, do have the funds to save, but lack control.Informal mutual saving systems like the Rotating Savings and Credit Associations (ROSCAs), widespread in Africa and ‘thrift and credit groups’ in India demonstrate that poor households save. For the poor household, which lacks access to the formal insurance system and the credit system, savings
provide a safety net and help them tide over crises. Savings can also keep them away from the clutches of moneylenders, make formal institutions more favourable to lending to them, encourage investment and make them shift to more productive activities, as they may invest in slightly more risky activities which have an overall higher rate of return.

Research shows the efficacy of informal institutions in increasing the savings of the small account holders. An MFI in the Philippines, which had existing account holders, was studied. They offered new products with ‘commitment features’. One type had withdrawal restrictions in the sense that it required individuals to restrict their right to withdraw any funds from their own accounts until they reached a self‐specified and documented goal. The other type was deposit options. Clients could purchase a locked box for a small fee. The key was with the bank and the client has to bring the box to the bank to make the deposit. He could not dip into the savings even if he wanted to. These accounts did not pay extra money and were illiquid. Surprisingly, these products were popular even though these had restrictions. Results showed that those who opted for these accounts with restrictions had substantially greater savings rates than those who did not. The policy of financial inclusion can be a success if financial inclusion focuses on both saving needs and credit needs, having a diversified product portfolio for the poor but recognising that self‐control problems need to be addressed by having commitment devices.The products with commitment features should be optional. Furthermore transaction costs for the poor
could be cut down, by making innovative use of technology available and offering mobile vans with ATM and deposit collection features which could visit villages periodically.

41. What is the aim of the financial inclusion policy ?
(A) A focus on savings needs rather than credit needs of the poor
(B) Minimising utilisation of technology in banks so as to reduce transaction costs for the poor
(C) To boost low savings volumes in banks by encouraging savings among the rural poor
(D) To make formal basic banking services available to the poor
(E) To regulate the rate at which moneylenders lend to the poor

42. The author’s main objective in writing the passage is to—
(A) Criticise the concept of financial inclusion
(B) Point out the problems of financial inclusion
(C) Discuss ways of making the financial inclusion policy successful
(D) Compare financial inclusion policies of different countries
(E) Cite research in support of role of MFIs in achieving financial inclusion

43. Which of the following can be inferred about products with commitment features ?
1. Demand for such products was high.
2. They were an effective means of increasing the savings of small account holders.
3. Such facilities can only be offered by informal institutions like MFIs.
(A) All 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these

44. Why do the poor not utilise banking services ?
1. Informal institutions offer higher rates of interest than those in banks.
2. Costs of reaching banks have to be borne by the poor.
3. Bank personnel do not treat the poor respectfully because their savings amounts are minimal.
(A) Only 2 (B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Both 2 and 3 (D) All 1, 2, and 3
(E) None of these

45. Which of the following is a recommendation made by the author regarding financial inclusion ?
(A) Reduce the paper work involved by seeking less information about the account holder
(B) Lower transaction costs by utilising latest technology.
(C) Make commitment features compulsory for all savings accounts
(D) Entrust the responsibility of financial inclusion solely to MFIs
(E) Provide credit facilities even to those without savings accounts

46. Which of the following factors affects ‘saving’ behaviour among the poor ?
1. Threats from moneylenders if they avail of banking services.
2. Documentation required before availing of banking services.
3. Lack of self‐control.
(A) Only 1 (B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 3 (D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these

47. What do the results of the study conducted in the Philippines indicate ?
(A) Account holders in MFIs have higher savings rates than banks
(B) Many of the poor have to turn to moneylenders because of strict restrictions in MFIs
(C) Having accounts with restriction on withdrawal requires the bank to offer a higher rate of interest
(D) There should be strong security measures for deposit option accounts for the poor
(E) None of these

48. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
(A) There are no informal means for the poor to save in India
(B) Having savings encourages the poor to invest only in low risk ventures
(C) There is a huge demand for savings facilities among poor households
(D) Presently commercial banks feel that it is feasible to provide banking services to the poor in rural areas
(E) There are many official innovative savings systems like roscas in Africa

49. What is/are the outcome(s) of encouraging savings for the poor ?
1. It frees them from the exploitation of moneylenders.
2. Banks are more willing to disburse loans to those who save.
3. They should invest in risky but high return ventures.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

50. What was the view of banks regarding the bank accounts of the poor in the past ?
(A) They were considered a problem since account holders information needed to be updated
constantly
(B) Focus should be more on providing savings facilities not credit
(C) Moneylenders should be regulated so that they share responsibility of disbursing loans to the poor
(D) Products with commitment features will not be successful
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 51–53) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
51. purely :
(A) morally
(B) honestly
(C) completely
(D) perfectly
(E) cleanly

52. demonstrate :
(A) protest
(B) occur
(C) estimate
(D) appear
(E) prove

53. remedy :
(A) medicine
(B) solve
(C) restore
(D) therapy
(E) heal

Directions—(Q. 54‐55) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
54. optional :
(A) voluntary
(B) compromise
(C) pressure
(D) mandatory
(E) free

55. accessible :
(A) convenient
(B) unavailable
(C) unfavourable
(D) unpleasant
(E) formal

Directions—(Q. 56–65) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
56. The scheme failed because / some states could not / manage not to raise / the necessaryfunds. No error. 
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

57. Real estate prices in the / business district of the city / are expected to rise / at 15% this year. No error 
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

58. By so early as next year / that leading investment bank / has plans to open / an office in New Delhi.No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

59. There is lots of / supports from the employees / for the proposal to / merge with the parent company. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

60. Experts have recommended that / the government reconsidered / restrictions imposed on foreign /investment in real estate. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

61. The crucial point to / be discussed at the / meetings is how to / well implement the policy.No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

62. He wants to / set up a laboratory / to undertake research / into a vaccine for cancer. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

63. According to him / two factors which are / needy for success / are discipline and diligence. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

64. Because of the pace at / which the company is growing / I believe it will easily / achieve their target.No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

65. It is truth / that India is / the largest consumer of / gold in the world. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions—(Q. 66–70) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
66. The bank is overstaffed, has led to low productivity.
(A) Led to (B) Will lead towards
(C) And has led in (D) Which has led to
(E) No correction required

67. You delay in taking a decision conveys a negative impression.
(A) You delay to take
(B) If you delay taking
(C) Your delay in taking
(D) To delay by taking
(E) No correction required

68. Today management student itself are opted to work for NGOs even though the salaries offered to them are low.
(A) Student itself is
(B) Students themselves are
(C) Students have
(D) Student himself has
(E) No correction required

69. Absence off any guidelines, they are unwilling to take up the project.
(A) Absent of
(B) In the absence of
(C) Because of the absence
(D) Without being absent
(E) No correction required

70. Without the development of rural people the country can no claim to be developed.
(A) Can never claim
(B) Being claimed
(C) Not able to claim
(D) Have not any claim
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 71–75) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e.. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

71. The organization preferred to hire locale population as they understood the language and customer preferences. All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

72. In our opinion the exicting assessment system requires immediate revision.All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

73. In responds to the advertisement a sizeable number of candidates have submitted their applications.
All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

74. There is no guarantee that if this model is adopted the entire sector will prosper.All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

75. With this unique initiative the company hopes to sustain its current growth rate. All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions—(Q. 76–80) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each five pairs of words have been denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

76. Mr. Srinivasan is …… to become Chairman of the group …… the retirement of his father.(A) set, following
(B) voted, subsequent
(C) selected, despite
(D) approved, because
(E) decided, after

77. …… to your error the …… consignment has been delayed by a week.
(A) According, important
(B) Duly, urgent
(C) Owing, entire
(D) Added, crucial
(E) Admitting, special

78. On account of the …… in sales the software firm has achieved an eight percent …… in net profit.
(A) surge, fall (B) increase, rise
(C) decline, slope (D) hike, loss
(E) growth, advance

79. We are proud to say that today …… 26 percent of our total accounts are …… by women and senior citizens.
(A) approximate, held
(B) nearly, authorised
(C) over, maintain
(D) above, open
(E) around, operated

80. The company has …… special training to employees on …… to trade online.
(A) announced, benefits
(B) offered, course
(C) imparted, risks
(D) sanction, skills
(E) provided, how

« Last Edit: February 15, 2012, 10:13:28 PM by MysteRy »

Offline MysteRy

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~ SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 7 ~
« Reply #7 on: January 10, 2012, 03:16:43 PM »




SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 7



(Paper) Latest SBI Clerk Reasoning Ability Solved Exam Paper 2009
Directions : – Select the related letters / word / number / figure from the given alternatives
1 Editor : Magazine
(a) Movie (b) Scene
(c) Drama (d) Director

2 Hinduism , Christianity , Islam : Religion
(a) Ear , Nose , Eyesight : Vision (b) Plus , Minus , Multiple : division
(c) Winter , Spring , Summer : Season (d) Humid , Hot , Tundra : Region

3 WOLF : FLOW :: WARD : ?
(a) BROW (b) DRAW
(c) CRAW (d) SLAW

4 GRAIN : TIZRM :: BRAIN : ?
(a) XRIKL (b) YIZRM(c) OPRST (d) ASQMI

5 CUT : BDTVSU :: TIP : ?
(a) UVHJOQ (b) SUHJOQ
(c) USJHQO (d) SUJHOQ

Q‐6 19 : 59 :: 17 : ?
(a) 51 (b) 53
(c) 55 (d) 57

Q‐7 14 : 20 :: 16 : ?
(a) 23 (b) 48
(c) 10 (d) 42

Q‐8 100 : 102 :: 100000 : ?
(a) 105 (b) 104
(c) 1003 (d) 1004

DIRECTIONS : (QUESTIONS 9 to 13) select the one which is different from the other three
Q‐9
(a) Mile (b) Centimeter
(c) Litre (d) Yard

Q‐10
(a) High – Up (b) Past – Present
(c) Often – Seldom (d) Fresh – Stale

Q‐11
(a) 11 – 127 (b) 9 – 85
(c) 7 – 53 (d) 5 – 29

Q‐12
(a) 26 Z (b) 24 X
(c) 22 V (d) 20 S

Q‐13
(a) 8 , 64 , 112 (b) 36 , 6 , 206
(c) 48 , 4 , 202 (d) 9 , 27 , 263

Q‐14 In the following series of numerals , which digit has maximum frequency ?
846734378344563464348
(a) 8 (b) 6
(c) 4 (d) 3

Q‐15 If the day after tomorrow is Friday , what day will the third day after tomorrow be
(a) Saturday (b) Monday
(c) Sunday (d) Friday

Q‐16 If the ratio of the area of two squares is 16 : 1 , then the ratio of their perimeter is
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 16 : 1
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 4

Q‐17 The shade of 18 ft high pole is 20 ft. . Find the length of shade of 27 ft long pole .
(a) 36 ft (b) 30 ft
(c) 34 ft (d) 40 ft

Q‐18 A scores more runs than B but less than C . D scores more than B but less than A . Who is the lowest scorer ?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D

Q‐19 In the alphabets from A to Z , which is the third letter to the right of the letter which is midway between K & S ?
(a) R (b) Q
(c) P (d) O

Q‐20 If first November falls on Monday , then what day will the 25th November be ?
(a) Tuesday (b) Thursday
(c) Wednesday (d) Friday

Q‐21 The length of room is twice its breadth . If the area of the room is 242 sq meters , then find out its breadth
(a) 11 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 9

Q‐22 If the product of two numbers is 10 & their sum is 7 , then the larger of the two number is ‐
(a) – 2 (b) 2
(c) 5 (d) 3

Q‐23 Which letter is used only in one of the given words ?
Speak , Reap , Shark
(a) S (b) P
(c) K (d) H

Q‐24 A tortoise covers one kilometer in 4 hours . It takes rest for 20 minutes after every kilometer .How much time does it takes for the tortoise to cover 3.5 kilometers ?
(a) 14 hours (b) 13
(c) 15 (d) 12

Q‐25 Of which of the following words , which one will be at the 3rd position in the dictionary ?
1. socks 2. Shocks
3. Sharp 4. snooker
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1

ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5
c c b b b

6 7 8 9 10
b d a c a   

11 12 13 14 15
a  d  a  c   c

16 17 18 19 20
a  b  b  a  b

21 22 23 24 25
a  c  d  c  a
« Last Edit: February 15, 2012, 10:14:11 PM by MysteRy »

Offline MysteRy

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~ SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 8 ~
« Reply #8 on: January 10, 2012, 03:28:51 PM »




SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 8



2008 All Entrance Exams Entrance Exams Other Entrance Exams SBI Bank Clerk exam Reasoning Ability Question paper
1.(i) 'P× Q' means 'Q' is mother of 'P'.
(ii) 'P × Q' means 'P' is brother of 'Q'.
(iii) 'P ‐ Q' means 'P' is sister of 'Q'.
(iv) 'P ÷ Q' means 'Q is father of 'P'.
Which of the following definitely means R is grandson of K?
(a) R × T ÷ K
(b) M + R × T ÷ K
(c) M ‐ R × T ÷ K
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these.
Ans (e)

2. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 95137248 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when they are arranged in ascending order?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three.
Ans (b)

3. In a certain code PATHOLOGIST is written as PIUBQKSRHFN. How is CONTROVERSY written in that code?
(a) SUOPDNXRQDU
(b) SUOPDNZTSFW
(c) QSMNBPXRQDU
(D) QSMNBPZTSFW
(e) None of these.
Ans (a)

4. In a certain code PATHOLOGIST is written as PIUBQKSRHFN. How is CONTROVERSY written in that code?
(a) SUOPDNXRQDU
(b) SUOPDNZTSFW
(c) QSMNBPXRQDU
(D) QSMNBPZTSFW
(e) None of these.
Ans (a)

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) Food : Hunger
(b) Water : Thirst
(c) Air : Suffocation
(d) Talent : Education
(e) Leg : Lame
Ans (d)

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) Crow
(b) Vulture
(c) Bat
(d) Ostrich
(e) Eagle
Ans (c)

7. Which of the following has the same relationship as that of Money : wealth?
(a) Pity : Kindness
(b) Cruel : Anger
(c) Wise : Education
(d) Pride : Humility
(e) None of these.
Ans (a)

8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) 29
(b) 85
(c) 147
(d) 125
(e) 53
Ans (d)


9. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, the sixth and the ninth letters of the word PERMEABILITY, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If no such word can be formed give 'N' as the answer. If only two such words can be formed give 'D' as the answer and if more than two such words can be formed give 'Z' as the answer.
(a) M
(b) L
(c) N
(d) D
(e) Z
Ans (e)

10. In a certain code language BEAM is written as 5%*K and COME is written as $7K%. How is 'BOMB' written in that code?
(a) 5%K5
(b) 57K5
(c) $7K$
(d) 5$%5
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

11. Find the number of days from 26‐1‐1996 to 15‐5‐1996 (both days inclusive)
(a) 110
(b) 112
(c) 111
(d) 113
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

12. Find the wrong number in the following sequence: 22, 33, 66, 99, 121, 279, 594
(a) 279
(b) 594
(c) 121
(d) 33
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

13. A father is now three times as old as his son. Five years back he was four times as old as his son.What is the age of the son now?
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 20
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

14. How many times between 4 a.m and 4 p.m will the hands of a clock cross?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 11
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

15. Five students are sitting in row. T is on right of Z. M is on the left of Z but is on the right of L. T is on the left of Q. Who is sitting first from the left? Here students are represented by the letters T, Z, M, L and Q
(a) Z
(b) T
(c) Q
(d) L
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

16. ANGER : 37219 : : NEAR:
(a) 7219
(b) 9132
(c) 1372
(d) 7139
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

17. What is the letter immediately to the right of the letter which is seven letters to the right of 'W',considering all the letters of the alphabet written in reverse order from left to right starting from 'Z'
(a) R
(b) O
(c) M
(d) Q
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

18. If the first day of the year 1990 was a Monday, what day of the week was the 1st January 1998?
(a) Thursday
(b) Tuesday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Friday
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

19. If “good and bad” is coded as 123, “bad is ugly” is coded as 245 and “good is fair” is coded as 436,then what is the code for “fair”?
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

20. Choose the one from the following which is different from others
(a) pen and pencil
(b) tailer and shirt
(c) scooter and cycle
(d) sword and riffle
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

21. If 2 = 1, 3 = 3, 4 = 12, 5 = 60 then 6 = .....?
(a) 120
(b) 180
(c) 720
(d) 360
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

22. What is the next letter of the series, F, I, L, O, .....?
(a) M
(b) N
(c) R
(d) P
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

23. How many '5' s are there which are followed by 0 and preceded by 0 in the following series 157050700512515050050
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

24. A boy goes to see a movie and sees a man sitting to his left. He found that the man was his relative.The man is the husband of the sister of his mother. How is the man related to the boy?
(a) Uncle
(b) Nephew
(c) Brother
(d) Father
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

25. A person traveled 20 km in the northward direction, then traveled 4 km in eastward direction, then traveled 10 km in the northward direction again, then traveled 3 km in the eastward direction and finally traveled 6 km in the southward direction. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 17 km
(b) 37 km
(c) 31 km
(d) 25 km
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

« Last Edit: February 15, 2012, 10:14:51 PM by MysteRy »

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~ SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 9 ~
« Reply #9 on: January 10, 2012, 03:37:31 PM »




SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 9



SBI CLERK MODEL QUESTION NUMERICAL ABILITY TEST
1. Sum of smallest six digit no. and greatest five digit no. is:
a. 199999
b. 201110
c. 211110
d. 1099999
e. None of these

2. Value of 112 * 54. is :
a. 6700
b. 70000
c. 76500
d. 77200
e. None of these

3. 1399*1399
a. 1687401
b. 1901541
c. 1943211
d. 1957201
e. None of these

4. When a no. is multiplied by 13 product consist of all 5’s. The smallest such no. is
a. 41625
b. 42135
c. 42515
d. 42735
e. None of these

5. If n is –ve no. then which of the following is least.
a. 0
b. –n
c. 2n
d. n2
e. None of these

6. If ‐1<=x <=2 and 1<= y <= 3 then least value of 2y‐3x is :
a. 0
b. ‐3
c. ‐4
d. ‐5
e. None of these

7. The least prime no. is :
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. None of these

8. The sum of prime no.’s b/w 60 and 75 is:
a. 199
b. 201
c. 211
d. 272
e. None of these

9. Total no. of even prime no.’s is :
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. None
e. None of these

10. How many No’s B/w 400 and 600 begin with or end with digit 5.
a. 40
b. 100
c. 110
d. 120
e. None of these

11. The digit in unit’s place of product 81*82……..*89 is:
a. 0
b. 2
c. 6
d. 8
e. None of these

12. The sum of first 45 natural no’s is :
a. 1035
b. 1280
c. 2070
d. 2140
e. None of these

13. The unit’s digit in the product of 771 * 659 * 3 65 is :
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
e. None of these

14. Which no. is exactly divisible by 11
a. 235641
b. 245642
c. 315624
d. 415624
e. None of these

15. The largest natural no. which exactly divides the product of any 4 consecutive natural no’s is:
a. 6
b. 12
c. 24
d. 120
e. None of these

16. The diff. b/w squares of 2 consecutive odd integers is always divisible by:
a. 3
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
e. None of these

17. The smallest no. to be added to 1000 so that 45 divides the sum exactly is :
a. 10
b. 20
c. 35
d. 80
e. None of these

18. The least no. which must be subtracted from 6709 to make it exactly divisible by 9 is :
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. None of these

19. Find the no. nearest to 99547 and exactly divisible by 687:
a. 98928
b. 99479
c. 99615
d. 100166
e. None of these

20. The least no. by which 72 must be multiplied in order to produce a multiple of 112 is
a. 6
b. 12
c. 14
d. 18
e. None of these

21. Which largest no. of 5 digits is divisible by 99:
a. 99909
b. 99981
c. 99990
d. 99999
e. None of these

22. A no. when divided by 114 leaves the remainder 21 if same no. is divided by 19 the remainder will be
a. 1
b. 2
c. 7
d. 21
e. None of these

23. The diff. b/w 2 no’s is 1365 when larger no. is divided by smaller the quotient is 6 and the remainder is 15. The smaller no. is :
a. 240
b. 270
c. 295
d. 360
e. None of these

24. The divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder if remainder is 46 then dividend is :
a. 4236
b. 4306
c. 4336
d. 5336
e. None of these

25. A four digit no. divisible by 7 becomes divisible by 3 when 10 is added to it the largest such no. is :
a. 9947
b. 9987
c. 9989
d. 9996
e. None of these

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION:
1) a
2) 1120000/16 = b
3) (1400‐1)*(1400‐1) = d
4) 555555/13 = d
5)c 6)c 7)c 8)d 9)b 10)c 11)a 12)a 13)c
14)d 15)c 16)d 17)a 18)c 19)c 20)c 21)c
22)d 23)b 24)d 25)b
« Last Edit: February 15, 2012, 10:15:30 PM by MysteRy »

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~ SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 10 ~
« Reply #10 on: January 10, 2012, 03:46:34 PM »




SBI Bank Clerk Sample Study Material Paper - 10



SBI BANK CLERK GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1. Who has been appointed as the new Chairman of Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) in MAY 2008 ?
(A) Rajeev Chandrashekha
(B) Anand Mahindra
(C) K.V.Kamath
(D) Ganesh Natarajan
(E) None of these
Ans (C)

2. Th World's longest Sea Bridge has been established in‐
(A) India
(B) USA
(C) Japan
(D) Malaysia
(E) China
Ans (E)

3. 12th UNCTAD (UNITED NATIONS CONFERENCE ON TRADE AND DEVELOPMENT) miniterial lavel conference was held in April 2008 at‐
(A) New Delhi (India)
(B) Accra (Ghana)
(C) Islamabad (Pakistan)
(D) Dhaka (Bangladesh)
(E) Kathmandu (Nepal)
Ans (B)

4. At which place India’s first Indira Gandhi National Tribal University would be set up ?
(A) Amarkantak (Madhya Pradesh)
(B) Nagpur
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Noida
(E) Patna
Ans (A)

5. Nathula Pass is located in the State :
(A) Nagaland
(B) Sikkim
(C)West Bengal
(D) Assam
(E) Tripura
Ans (B)

6. THE 2007 Durand Cup has been won by –
(A) Mohan Bagan
(B) Mahindra United
(C) Churchill Brothers
(D) Central Railways
(E) None of these
Ans (C)

7. Who amongst the following has been named as the Forbes Asia Businessman of the year 2007 ?
(A) K.V.Kamath
(B) Ratan Tata
(C) Nandan Nilekani
(D) Ajim Premji
(E) None of these
Ans (A)

8. Konkan Railway is building world’s tallest railways bridge in which of the following states ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Jammu & Kashmir
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Kerala
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

9. The author the book “ Jyoti Punj” is‐
(A) Sonia Gandhi
(B) Narendra Modi
(C) Jaswant Singh
(D) Pervez Musharraf
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

10. World Investment Report is an annual publication of :
(A) UNCTAD
(B) WTO
(C) World Bank
(D)IMF
(E) ADB
Ans (A)

11. Which of the following countries has the maximum amount of external debt ?
(A) USA
(B) Brazil
(C)Mexico
(D) Japan
(E) Russia
Ans (A)

12. Lee Myung Bak is the president of –
(A) China
(B) South Korea
(C) North Korea
(D) Malaysia
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

13. The author the book “ My Country My Life” is‐
(A) Sonia Gandhi
(B) L.K.Advani
(C) Jaswant Singh
(D) Pervez Musharraf
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

14. Who has been won the Prem Bhatia Award for the year 2008 ?
(A) Nagma
(B) Shweta Singh
(C) Nirupama Subramaniam
(D) Nalini Singh
(E) None of these
Ans (C)

15. Who has been won Commonwealth Writers Prize 2008 ?
(A) Kiran Desai
(B) Shweta Singh
(C) Rupashree Nanda
(D) Indra Sinha
(E) None of these
Ans (D)

16. What is the full form of the term “PIARC” ?
(A) Permanent International Association of Road Congress
(B) Permanent Indian Association of Road Congress
(C) Permanent International Accident of Road Congress
(D) Permanent International Association of Rapid Congress
(E) None of these
Ans (A)

17. What is the percentage of the African countries in the earth areas ?
(A) 28%
(B) 18%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%(E) 35%
Ans (C)

18. International women’s day is celebrated every year on –
(A) January 26
(B) March 8
(C) August 26
(D) December 8
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

19. Gary Kirsten signed a two year contract with BCCI to coach the Indian Cricket team, belongs to :
(A) South Africa
(B) England
(C) West Indies
(D) Australia
(E) New Zealand
Ans (A)

20. Capital formation in an economy depends on :
(A) Total income
(B) Total savings
(C) Total demand
(D) Total Production
(E) None of these
Ans (D)

21. The National Old age Pension Scheme has now been extended to cover the entire BPL people above‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ of age
(A) 55 years
(B) 60 years
(C) 62 years
(D) 65 years
(E) None of these
Ans (D)

22. According to the Union Finance Minister , by which year will India become middle income nation ?
(A) 2015
(B) 2025
(C) 2030
(D) 2032
(E) 2040
Ans (B)

23. Who has been conferred to Miss India World 2008 ?
(A) Simran Kaur Mundi
(B) Tanvi Vyas
(C) Parvathy Omanakuttan
(D) Pooja Chitgopekar
(E) None of these
Ans (C)

24. The 20th Interpol Asian Regional Conference was held in March 2008 at _
(A) India
(B) Hong Kong
(C) Kuala Lumpur
(D) Moscow
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

25. Who is the new President of Russia ?
(A) Vladimir Putin
(B) Dmitry Medvedev
(C) Viktor Chernomyrdin
(D) Boris Yeltsin
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
« Last Edit: February 15, 2012, 10:16:15 PM by MysteRy »

Offline MysteRy

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~ SBI Clerk GK Questions ~
« Reply #11 on: January 10, 2012, 05:16:39 PM »





More Material:

SBI Clerk GK Questions
1. Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award
2007 ?
a) Priya Ranjan Das Munshi
b) Mani Shankar Aiyyar
c) P.Chidambaram
d) Sushama Swaraj
ANS : a

2. Fernando Lugo’s name was in news recently as he has taken over as the president of
a) Paraguay
b) Sudan
c) Afghanistan
d) Pakistan
ANS : a

3.  ISRO has launched successfully ten satellites through PSLV-C9 on - 
A. 15th March,2008
B. 30th March,2008
C. 28th April,2008
D. 4th May,2008
ANS : c   

4. The newly constituted National Knowledge Commission is headed by
a) C. Rangarajan
b)Prof. R. S. Sharma
c) Sam Pitroda
d) Ms. Girija Vyas
ANS : c

5. India enacted an important event of Indian National Movement celebrating the
seventy- fifth anniversary. Which was it?
a) Quit India Movement
b) Delhi Chalo Movement
c) Civil Disobedience Movement
d) Non – Cooperation Movement
ANS :c

6. Pope Benedict XVI belongs to which country?
a) Italy
b) Germany
c) France
d) Poland
ANS : b

7. The media campaign “ The World Is Waiting” is related to which of the following
companies?
a) Lufthansa
b) Qatar Airways
c) Indian Airlines
d) British Airways
ANS : d

8. Who among the following has been elected as President of the International Council of
Science Union?
a) E. Sreedharan
b) N. Ram
c) M. G. K. Menon
d) Goverdhan Mehta
ANS : d

9. Which of the following countries launched the smallest combat aircraft in the world?
a) Germany
b) India
c) Russia
d) USA
ANS : b

10. Who among the following British Governor- Generals shifted India’s capital from
Calcutta to Delhi in 1911?
a) Lord Louis Mountbatten
b) Lord Canning
c) Lord Hardinge
d) Warren Hastings
ANS : c

11. “Golden Handshake” is the term associated with
a) Share market
b) Retirement benefits
c) Voluntary retirement benefits
d) Smuggling
ANS : c

12. Which of the following is the first surface- to- surface missile in India?
a) Prithvi
b) Trishul
c) Agni
d) Naag
ANS : a

13. Which country will be host 15th SAARC Summit in 2008 ? 
a) Maldives
b) Sri Lanka
c) India
d) Pakistan
ANS : b

14. Mist is caused by
a) Dry ice
b) Ice at low temperature
c) Water vapours at low temperature
d) Carbon- monoxide in solid form
ANS : c

15. Who among the following has been chosen the Miss India Universe for the year 2008

a) Parvathy Omanakuttan
b) Simaran Kaur Mundi
c) Amrita Thapar
d) Tanvi Vyas
ANS : b

16. Who among the following was the author of “Rajtarangini”, commonly regarded as
the first genuine history of India written by an Indian?
a) Banbhatta
b) Ravikirti
c) Pushpadanta
d) Kalhana
ANS : d

17. Who among the following advocated Scientific Socialism?
a) Robert Owen
b) Proudhon Pierre Joseph
c) Karl Marx
d) Saint Simon Henri Claude
ANS : c

18. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with the Directive
Principles of State Policy?
a) 26 to 41
b) 31 to 56
c) 36 to 51
d) 41 to 66
ANS: c

19) Which one of the following travelers is not associated with the description of the
glories of Vijayanagar kingdom?
a) Abdur Razzaq
b) Paes
c) Ibn Batutah
d) Nuniz
ANS : c :
Abdur Razzaq- Deva Raya II
Paes- Krishna Deva Raya
Ibn Batutah- Harihara I
Nuziz- Achyut Deva Raya

20. The Chinese pilgrim Fa – Hien visited India during the reign of
a) Kanishka
b) Chandragupta I
c) Chandragupta II
d) Harshavardhana
ANS : c

21. Which of the following is the economic growth percentage projected in the 11th Five
Year Plan draft that was approved by the Planning Commission in November 2007?
a) 8%
b) 9%
c) 9.5%
d) 10%
ANS : b

22. The Indian Navy’s only sailing ship, which returned to Kochi after a 10- month
voyage around the globe is,
a) INS Vibhuti
b) INS Tarangini
c) INS Prabhat
d) INS Viraat
ANS : b

23) Who among the following is the Director General of International Monetary Fund
(IMF) ?
a) Thaksin Shinawatra
b) Liang Guanglie
c) Dominique Strauss Kahn
d) Paul Wolfowitz
ANS : c

24) Who is the author of the book “Super Star India : From Incredible to Unstopable”?
a) Shobha De
b) Hillory Clinton
c) Dalai Lama
d) Imran Khan
ANS : a

25) What does CECA stand for?
a) Community Enabled Cooperative Arrangement
b) Comprehensive Ecological Cooperation Agreement
c) Comprehensive Ecological Cooperation Arrangement
d) Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement
ANS : d

26) John wheeler was associated with -
a) Physics
b) Chemistry
c) Botany
d) History
Ans : a

« Last Edit: February 15, 2012, 10:18:07 PM by MysteRy »

Offline MysteRy

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~ SBI Clerk Model Paper 2008 General English ~
« Reply #12 on: January 10, 2012, 06:01:59 PM »





More Material:

SBI Clerk Model Paper 2008 General English
Directions (Question 1 to 10) Read the list of words given below and choose from the
options the word that  is the nearest in meaning to the given word.
1. Exiguous
a) tall
b) large
c) wide
d) scanty
e) broad

2. Recreancy
a) recreation
b) recuperation
c) bravery
d) cowardice
e) obstinate

3. Proscribe
a) to nominate
b) to be supportive of
c) to give early warning signals
d) outlaw
e) none of these

4. Ingest
a) enrage
b) invigorate
c) to absorb
d) burn up completely
e) to stir up

5. Monticule
a) a small river
b) a small hut
c) a lane
d) a small hill
e) a small plane

6. Compendious
a) comprehensive
b) illustrative
c) unbearable
d) elaborate
e) none of the above

7. Nadir
a) asylum
b) heaven
c) depth
d) nebulous
e) none of the above

8. Somnambulistic
a) sleepwalking
b) ghost dancing
c) women’s group activity
d) colourful scenario
e) over-eating

9. primordial
a) feeling of elation
b) original
c) elementary
d) daunting
e) none of the above

10. Somber
a) Causing sleep
b) Squalid
c) Gloomy
d) Complacent
e) Malicious

Directions (Question 11 to 20) Against each key word are given by alternative meanings.
Choose the one that is the opposite in meaning to the given word.
11. Sanctimonious
a) holy
b) Realistic
c) Humble
d) Callous
e) Pessimistic

12. Munificent
a) Miserly
b) Faulty
c) Perplexing
d) Rudimentary
e) Grandiose

13. Opaque
a) Vague
b) Firm
c) Transparent
d) Poor
e) None of the above

14. Restive
a) Unrestrained
b) Communicate
c) Peaceful
d) Quarrel
e) Disturbing

15. Catapult
a) Reach great heights
b) Downfall
c) Caterpillar
d) Gaining
e) Losing

16. Enigmatic
a) Industrious
b) Mysterious
c) Enthusiastic
d) Straightforward
e) Sincere

17. Traipse
a) Walk
b) Stroll
c) Crawl
d) Run
e) None of the above

18. Piquant
a) Jovial
b) Merry
c) Blunt
d) Rigorous
e) Shocking

19. Bigoted
a) Dignified
b) Tolerant
c) wide
d) Contrite
e) Sincere

20. Obliquity
a) Thin
b) Frank
c) Self-righteous
d) Depreciation
e) Conformity

Directions (Question 21 to 25) In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence
is given in bold letters. Five alternative meanings of the bold part of the sentence are
given below. Choose the correct one.
21. The soldiers had been shut up for a long time; they painted the town red when they
were let out.
a) ran about wildly trying to kill people
b) decided to shun fighting and shedding blood
c) caused disturbance in the town by noisy merry-making
d) were asked to be ready for any emergency
e) were advised not to incur troubles by thoughtless actions.

22. John used very ugly words against his kind uncle; he threw down the gauntlet before
him.
a) he behaved as if he was a very great and important person
b) he put several conditions for negotiations
c) he abused and insulted uncle’s son
d) he showed his readiness to leave the place
e) he threw the challenge

23. He is a strange fellow and it is very difficult to deal with him; it seems that he has a
bee in his bonnet.
a) an obsession about something
b) peculiar habit of confusing others
c) unreliable and inconsistent way of behaving
d) to face problems as a result of his senseless actions
e) an achievement to be proud of

24. I am reasonably sure that all his schemes will end in smoke.
a) will produce good results
b) bear no fruits
c) benefit the poor and the downtrodden
d) motivate the employees to produce more
e) be severely criticized by the public

25. The dacoits took to their heels when the police arrived.
a) took shelter in the thick jungle
b) opened indiscriminate fire
c) took to flight
d) unconditionally challenged
e) renewed their resolve to fight

Answers
1. scanty
2. cowardice
3. none of the above (proscribe means to prohibit or ban)
4. to absorb
5. a small hill
6. comprehensive
7. depth
8. sleepwalking
9. elementary
10. gloomy
11. callous
12. miserly
13. transparent
14. peaceful
15. downfall
16. straightforward
17. crawl
18. jovial
19. dignified
20. conformity
21. caused disturbance in the town by noisy merry-making
22. he threw the challenge
23. an obsession about something
24. bear no fruits
25. took to flight
« Last Edit: February 15, 2012, 10:18:55 PM by MysteRy »

Offline MysteRy

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~ SBI Clerk Numarical Ability ~
« Reply #13 on: January 10, 2012, 06:16:16 PM »





More Material:

SBI Clerk Numarical Ability
FREE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER ON : http://indiaknow.blogspot.com
1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how
many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 28 minutes
(d) 34 minutes

2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question
mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096
 (b) 8192
(c) 512
(d) 1024

3. Find the number missing at question mark:  10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100
(b) 103
(c) 78
(d) 128

4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and     reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45
minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how
much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes

5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14.  What is the figure?
 (a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6

6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
 (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18

7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
 (a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45

8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
 (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150

9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14

10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
(a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17

11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….
(a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400

12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
(a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210

13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
(a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50

14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it
passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds

15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket
completely will be …….
(a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds

16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40

17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6

18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
(a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050

19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance
between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
(a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m


20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2

21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..
(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3  (c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution

22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2

23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
(a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%

24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5

25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400

26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every
five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes    (c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes

27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minute

28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
(a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300

29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days

30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27

31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
(a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %

32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
(a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2

33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that
number by 1000 what is that number?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0

34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks.What is the maximum marks?
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450

35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
(a) Interior of the triangle
(b) Midpoint of the diameter
(c) Exterior of the triangle
(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle

36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
(a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180

37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
(a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre

38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its
slant height?
(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) v5r (d) v3r

39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6

40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3v2, 6, 6v2 ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) v2 (d) v3

41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the
subjects?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45

42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr

43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32

44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm

45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……
(a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57

46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30

47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21

48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750

49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
(a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510

50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31

Answers
1 A   11 B   21 C   31 D   41 A
2 B   12 A   22 B   32 D   42 A
3 A   13 D   23 A   33 B   43 B
4 B   14 D   24 C   34 D   44 C
5 C   15 A   25B   35 C   45 A
6 B   16C   26 A   36 D   46 C
7 C   17 D   27 B   37 B   47 B
8 D   18 A   28 D   38 C   48 D
9 C   19 C   29 C   39 C    49 B
10 B   20B   30B    40C    50B
[/center]
« Last Edit: February 15, 2012, 10:08:13 PM by MysteRy »

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~ SBI Clerk Reasoning Ability Solved Paper 2009 ~
« Reply #14 on: January 10, 2012, 08:48:06 PM »





More Material:

Latest SBI Clerk Reasoning Ability Solved Exam Paper 2009 | SBI Clerk Reasoning Ability Solved Exam Paper with Answers | SBI Clerk Reasoning Ability paper 2009
1. Editor : Magazine
(a) Movie (b) Scene
(c) Drama (d) Director

2. GRAIN : TIZRM :: BRAIN : ?
(a) XRIKL (b) YIZRM
(c) OPRST (d) ASQMI

3. CUT : BDTVSU :: TIP : ?
(a) UVHJOQ (b) SUHJOQ
(c) USJHQO (d) SUJHOQ

4. Hinduism , Christianity , Islam : Religion
(a) Ear , Nose , Eyesight : Vision (b) Plus , Minus , Multiple : division
(c) Winter , Spring , Summer : Season (d) Humid , Hot , Tundra : Region

5. CUT : BDTVSU :: TIP : ?
(a) UVHJOQ (b) SUHJOQ
(c) USJHQO (d) SUJHOQ

6. 19 : 59 :: 17 : ?
(a) 51 (b) 53
(c) 55 (d) 57

7. 14 : 20 :: 16 : ?
(a) 23 (b) 48
(c) 10 (d) 42

8. 100 : 102 :: 100000 : ?
(a) 105 (b) 104
(c) 1003 (d) 1004

(QUESTIONS 9 to 13) select the one which is different from the other three .
9.(a) Mile (b) Centimeter
(c) Litre (d) Yard

10.(a) High – Up (b) Past – Present
(c) Often – Seldom (d) Fresh – Stale

11.(a) 11 – 127 (b) 9 – 85
(c) 7 – 53 (d) 5 – 29

12.(a) 26 Z (b) 24 X
(c) 22 V (d) 20 S

13.(a) 8 , 64 , 112 (b) 36 , 6 , 206
(c) 48 , 4 , 202 (d) 9 , 27 , 263

14. In the following series of numerals , which digit has maximum frequency ?
846734378344563464348
(a) 8 (b) 6
(c) 4 (d) 3

15. If the day after tomorrow is Friday , what day will the third day after tomorrow be
(a) Saturday (b) Monday
(c) Sunday (d) Friday

16. If the ratio of the area of two squares is 16 : 1 , then the ratio of their perimeter is
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 16 : 1
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 4

17. The shade of 18 ft high pole is 20 ft. . Find the length of shade of 27 ft long pole .
(a) 36 ft (b) 30 ft
(c) 34 ft (d) 40 ft

18. A scores more runs than B but less than C . D scores more than B but less than A . Who is the lowest scorer ?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D

19. In the alphabets from A to Z , which is the third letter to the right of the letter which is
midway between K & S ?
(a) R (b) Q
(c) P (d) O

20. If first November falls on Monday , then what day will the 25th November be ?
(a) Tuesday (b) Thursday
(c) Wednesday (d) Friday

21. The length of room is twice its breadth . If the area of the room is 242 sq meters , then find out its breadth
(a) 11 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 9

22. If the product of two numbers is 10 & their sum is 7 , then the larger of the two number is -
(a) – 2 (b) 2
(c) 5 (d) 3 

23. Which letter is used only in one of the given words ?
Speak , Reap , Shark
(a) S (b) P
(c) K (d) H

24. A tortoise covers one kilometer in 4 hours . It takes rest for 20 minutes after every kilometer.How much time does it takes for the tortoise to cover 3.5 kilometers ?
(a) 14 hours (b) 13
(c) 15 (d) 12

25. Of which of the following words , which one will be at the 3rd position in the dictionary ?
1. socks 2. Shocks
3. Sharp 4. snooker
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1

Answers :

1 2 3 4 5
c b b b b

6 7 8 9 10
b d a c a 

11 12 13 14 15
a d a c c

16 17 18 19 20
a b b a b

21 22 23 24 25
a c d c a
« Last Edit: February 15, 2012, 10:07:07 PM by MysteRy »